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Home was originally financed as second home unbeknownst to me...

I purchased CT home and closed on it in December 2004. I was renting a condo in CA at the time. I moved into the CT residence in a March 2005. I have just recently tried refinancing my home and while there is no problem doing so, the lender said the only reason I won't qualify for HARP and having all refinance expenses paid for, is due to my house being listed as a second home. It has never been a second home and I had no idea that the loan was sold to Fanniemae (?) that way. I explained that it must have been a technicality due to my living in CA at the time. But insurance and financing were all based on CT being my primary (only!) residence. Is there anything I can do about this so that I qualify for the "no cost" refinance?
By Mfido719 from CT Jul 22nd 2014

Yes, I would be able to assist. Please contact me at Justin.Egan@rmsmortgage.comThank you. (we are local in CT)

Jul 22nd 2014

Yes, you can still get a 'no cost' refinance regardless of what the property is now being classified as. I would be happy to help you. You may call or email me any time. Evenings are fine also. 203-530-2674 or robert.graybill@rmsmortgage.com. We are located in Fairfield CT

Jul 22nd 2014

Thank you for your question. Yes I have solutions for your situation as it comes up quite frequently. Plus if you want to be sure you know who your lender and servicer are call/email me for that alone. Chris Caporiccio (603)222-3932 / chris.caporiccio@wellsfargo.com we write and service our loans.

Jul 22nd 2014

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